Wednesday, July 13, 2011

Did Mary I make a mistake in marrying Philip II of Spain?

I need some general points for both sides of the argument. I've only had a few days to do some research, and I know that the marriage was perceived by some as England becoming a vassal of Spain and resulted in Wyatt's rebellion, but I don't know what else. I've looked on wikipedia and a few other sites, but I can't find any concise info.

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